Subject: a question
Date: Tue, 18 Dec 2001 03:48:15 -0800 (PST)
From: abbas mousavi <abbasmousavi@yahoo.com>
To: dmd1@lehigh.edu


   Can anyone help me with a proof or counterexampel
of the following statement(this is -in some sense- a
generalisation of brouwer fixed point theorem.)

 let f and g be functions from [0,1]^n  to [0,1]^n
such that fog=gof then there exist x (in [0,1]^n)
such that f(x)=g(x).
  (It is true for n=1)

dear Dr. deivis
  pleas change my email in topology and geometry
 mailing list (from mousavim@math.sharif.ac.ir)to
 abbasmousavi@yahoo.com .
                                 thanks
                            abbas mousavi
                  sharif university of technology
                       Tehran ,Iran.





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