Subject: Re: many responses
Date: Fri, 16 Jan 2004 15:51:38 -0600
From: Brayton Gray <brayton@math.uic.edu>
To: Don Davis <dmd1@Lehigh.EDU>
CC: Brayton Gray <brayton@math.uic.edu>

While we are in the "where was that" mode, I once saw a wonderful proof
that e^(i*pi) = -1  using the concept of imaginary interest rates. Does
anyone have a reference?