Subject: Re: 2 Goodwillie responses
Date: Sat, 3 May 2003 11:03:35 +0100 (BST)
From: Andrey Lazarev <A.Lazarev@bristol.ac.uk>
To: Don Davis <dmd1@Lehigh.EDU>

Thanks to Tom for correcting me on this. I now think that the original
statement is correct provided the group of coefficients (does not have
to be a ring, actually) is p-complete.

Andrey
On Fri, 2 May 2003, Don Davis wrote:

> Goodwillie responses to two recently-posted questions.........DMD
> ______________________________________________________
>
> Subject: Re: response and question
> Date: Fri, 2 May 2003 09:51:09 -0400 (EDT)
> From: Tom Goodwillie <tomg@math.brown.edu>
>
> > The cohomology of any abelian torsion-free group with coefficients
> > in any torsion-free commutative ring has no torsion.
>
> Not true. Use Z coefficients. You get an element of order p
> in H^2(G) whenever you have an element of H^1(G,Z/p)=Hom(G,Z/p)
> that doesn't come from H^1(G)=Hom(G,Z), for example when G is
> Z localized at p.
>
>